Hi
I’m going a bit of research on intercepted signs and planets. I think based on your posts I’ll have to buy Pluto book 2 which I will do now. in the meantime I have two questions
do we look at the ruler of the intercepted sign or is it mute? There was an example given where mars was in Pisces intercepted .. would we look at Neptune?
If so.. what if Neptune was intercepted as well, would that have significance? Or what if the ruler of the cusp of any given house was intercepted?
My guess is it’s hidden for a reason, maybe in order to develope something else that maybe this planet/sign would get in the way of. But it’ll come out in progressions/ transits which I think will make it useful that time?
HI,
Yes, to both of your questions. Here are two links from the old message board that will provide more information about interceptions from and EA point of view.
https://forum.schoolofevolutionaryastrology.com/index.php/topic,103.msg1231.html#msg1231
https://forum.schoolofevolutionaryastrology.com/index.php/topic,1490.msg68441.html#msg68441
God Bless, Rad
Hi Rad
Thanks so much for taking the time to send links.
That’s exactly the Neptune I was referring to. Since the mars is intercepted it seemed that it was more necessary to use the sign cusp and its ruler to dig deeper and not the Pisces/neptune part.
Would we still look into Neptune in this case?
I don't think JWG ever taught it was more necessary. The point Ras was making in that archived thread is that the sign on the house and its ruler conditions the intercepted sign and any planets therein. You really can't understand this Mars in Pisces without looking towards the sign that rules the house and that sign's ruler.
Here are the words he used in the post from the link above: (I put the word conditioned in bold to clarify that point).
We would. The rulership of Mars in Pisces is still important, because Mars is actually in Pisces. I wouldn't suggest giving more defacto importance to the house ruler just because it's intercepted.